Integration 2018 Exam

 
  1. Throughout this question assume that measurable subsets of $ā„$, the (Lebesgue) measure of such sets, and measurable functions have been defined.
    1. What does it mean to say that a function $φ: ā„ →[0, āˆž)$ is a simple function? How is the integral $∫_ā„ φ(x) \mathrm{~d}x$ of a simple function defined?
      Let $f: ā„ →[0, āˆž]$ be a measurable function. How is the integral $∫_ā„ f(x) \mathrm{~d} x$ defined?
      Let $g: ā„ → ā„$ be a measurable function. What does it mean to say that $g$ is integrable over $ā„$ ? How is the integral $∫_ā„ g(x) \mathrm{~d}x$ defined?
    2. Show that each of the following functions $f(x)$ is integrable over ā„:
      1. $\mathrm{e}^{-|x|}$,
      2. $\mathrm{e}^{-x^2}$,
      3. $\mathrm{e}^{-x^2} \cos x$
      4. $\mathrm{e}^{-|x|}|x|^{-1 / 2}$
    3. You are given that $∫_ā„ \mathrm{e}^{-x^2} \mathrm{~d} x=\sqrt{Ļ€}$. Find the values of
      1. $∫_ā„ \mathrm{e}^{-|x|}|x|^{-1 / 2} \mathrm{~d} x$
      2. $∫_ā„ \mathrm{e}^{-x^2} \cos x \mathrm{~d} x$.
        [In parts (b) and (c), you may use standard properties of the Lebesgue integral, provided that you state them clearly.]
    1. State the Dominated Convergence Theorem and Fubini's Theorem.
    2. Define $f:(0, āˆž) Ɨ[0, āˆž) → ā„$ by $$ f(x, y)=\frac{(\sin \sqrt{x y})^2}{x^2+y} $$ Let $y ⩾ 0$. Show that the function $x ↦ f(x, y)$ is integrable over $(0, āˆž)$. [You may use standard inequalities for the sine function.]
    3. Let $f$ be as in part (b), and define $F:[0, āˆž) → ā„$ by $$ F(y)=∫_0^āˆž f(x, y) \mathrm{~d} x $$
      1. Show that $F$ is continuous on $[0, āˆž)$.
      2. Show that $F$ is not integrable over $[0, āˆž)$.
      3. Does the right-hand derivative of $F$ exist at $y=0$ ? You should justify your answer. [Substitutions of the form $t=x y$ may be helpful.]
  2. Let $I$ either be an interval in $ā„$ or $I=ā„^2$. For $1 ⩽ p<āˆž$, let $ā„’^p(I)$ be the vector space of all measurable functions $f: I → ā„$ such that $|f|^p$ is integrable over $I$.
    1. Show that $ā„’^2(0,1) āŠ† ā„’^1(0,1)$. By giving examples of suitable functions (justification is not required), show that
      1. $ā„’^2(ā„)āŠˆā„’^1(ā„)$
      2. $ā„’^1(ā„) ⊈ ā„’^2(ā„)$
    2. State Minkowski's inequality. Explain how the normed spaces $\left(L^p(I),\|ā‹…\|_{L^p(I)}\right)$ are defined, and how Minkowski's inequality is involved. [Detailed justifications are not required.] Show that the norm on $L^2(I)$ is associated with an inner product $āŸØā‹…, ā‹…āŸ©_{L^2(I)}$ which you should define.
    3. In this part we identify functions in $ā„’^2(I)$ with the corresponding elements of $L^2(I)$. Thus we may write $\|f\|_{L^2(I)}$ and $\left\langle f_1, f_2\right\rangle_{L^2(I)}$ for $f, f_1, f_2 ∈ ā„’^2(I)$. Let $k ∈ ā„’^2\left(ā„^2\right)$ satisfy $k(y, x)=k(x, y)$ for all $x, y ∈ ā„$, and define $k_{x}(y)=k(x, y)$. Let $f ∈ ā„’^2(ā„)$, and define $$ g(x)=∫_ā„ k(x, y) f(y) \mathrm{~d} y $$ whenever this integral exists. Show that
      1. $\|k\|_{L^2\left(ā„^2\right)}^2=∫_ā„\left\|k_{x}\right\|_{L^2(ā„)}^2 \mathrm{~d} x$
      2. For almost all $x, g(x)$ is defined and $|g(x)| ⩽\|f\|_{L^2(ā„)}\left\|k_{x}\right\|_{L^2(ā„)}$,
      3. There exists $T f ∈ ā„’^2(ā„)$ such that $T f=g$ a.e., and $\|T f\|_{L^2(ā„)} ⩽\|f\|_{L^2(ā„)}\|k\|_{L^2\left(ā„^2\right)}$
      4. $\left\langle T f_1, f_2\right\rangle_{L^2(ā„)}=\left\langle f_1, T f_2\right\rangle_{L^2(ā„)}$ for all $f_1, f_2 ∈ ā„’^2(ā„)$.
        [You may use standard results about inner products and Lebesgue integration without proof.]

Solutions

    1. $φ$ is a simple function if it is measurable and takes only finitely many values.
      Equivalently, $φ=\sum_{i=1}^{k} α_{i} χ_{B_{i}}$ where $B_{i}$ are measurable. Then $∫_ā„ φ=\sum_{i=1}^{k} α_{i} m\left(χ_{B_{i}}\right)$. $$ ∫_ā„ f(x) \mathrm{~d} x=\sup \left\{∫_ā„ φ: φ \text { simple, } 0 ⩽ φ ⩽ f\right\} . $$ [Note: The supremum may be $āˆž$.]
      $g$ is integrable if $∫_ā„ g^+$ and $∫_ā„ g^-$ are both finite, and then $∫_ā„ g=∫_ā„ g^+-∫_ā„ g^-$.
    2. All functions are continuous on $ā„āˆ–\{0\}$, hence measurable.
      1. By the FTC on $[-n, 0]$ and $[0, n], ∫_{-n}^n e^{-|x|} \mathrm{d} x=2\left(1-e^{-n}\right) → 2$ as $n → āˆž$. By (Baby) MCT, $e^{-|x|}$ is integrable over $ā„$.
      2. $0 ⩽ e^{-x^2} ⩽ C e^{-|x|}$, so $e^{-x^2}$ is integrable by comparison. [Note: $C ⩾ e^{1 / 4}$ ]
      3. $\left|e^{-x^2} \cos x\right| ⩽ e^{-x^2}$, so $e^{-x^2} \cos x$ is integrable by comparison.
      4. By the Substitution Theorem with $y=x^{1 / 2}, e^{-x} x^{-1 / 2}$ is integrable over $(0, āˆž)$ if and only if $2 e^{-y^2}$ is integrable over $(0, āˆž)$, which is true by (i). Similarly over $(-āˆž, 0)$. [Alternatively, for $|x| ⩾ 1, e^{-|x|}|x|^{-1 / 2} ⩽ e^{-|x|}$; by (i) and comparison, the function is integrable over the region $|x| ⩾ 1$. Using FTC, $$ ∫_{n^{-1} ⩽|x| ⩽ 1} e^{-|x|}|x|^{-1 / 2} \mathrm{~d} xā‰¤āˆ«_{n^{-1} ⩽|x| ⩽ 1}|x|^{-1 / 2} \mathrm{~d} x=4\left(1-n^{-1 / 2}\right) → 4 $$ so the function is integrable over $[-1,1]$ by Baby MCT.]

      Standard facts used above

      Any function which is continuous a.e. is measurable.
      Baby MCT: If $f$ is measurable on $ā„, f ⩾ 0$ and $\sup _n ∫_{I_n} f$ is finite for an increasing sequence of measurable sets $I_n$ with union $I$, then $f$ is integrable over $I$.
      Comparison: If $g$ is integrable, $f$ is measurable and $|f| ⩽ g$, then $f$ is integrable. Substitution: Let $g: I → ā„$ be a monotonic function with a continuous derivative on an interval $I$, and let $J$ be the interval $g(I)$. A (measurable) function $f: J → ā„$ is integrable over $J$ if and only if $(f ∘ g) ā‹… g'$ is integrable over $I$. Then $∫_{J} f(x) d x=∫_{I} f(g(y))\left|g'(y)\right| d y$.
      FTC is a theorem of Riemann (or even simpler) integration in Prelims, so candidates are not required to state it. Similarly they are not required to state the Substitution Theorem for continuous $f$ on closed bounded intervals, but they should state the version above if they use it in other contexts.
      1. Substitute $x=y^2$$$∫_0^āˆž \mathrm{e}^{-|x|}|x|^{-1 / 2} \mathrm{~d} x=2 ∫_0^āˆž e^{-y^2} \mathrm{~d} y=\sqrt{Ļ€}$$
      2. $$ ∫_ā„ e^{-x^2} \cos x \mathrm{~d} x=∫_ā„ e^{-x^2} \frac{e^{i x}+e^{-i x}}2 \mathrm{~d} x=\frac{e^{-1 / 4}}2 ∫_ā„\left(e^{-\left(x-\frac{i}2\right)^2}+e^{-\left(x+\frac{i}2\right)^2}\right) \mathrm{~d} x . $$ Now we borrow from A2 (reminder given in A4) the fact that $∫_ā„ e^{-(x-i b)^2} \mathrm{~d} x=∫_ā„ e^{-x^2} \mathrm{~d} x$ and we conclude that $∫_ā„ e^{-x^2} \cos x \mathrm{~d} x=e^{-1 / 4} \sqrt{Ļ€}$. There are alternative methods for (c)(ii). If they use integration by parts for $C^1$-functions on closed bounded intervals, there is no need to state it. If they use it on infinite intervals without justifying it, they may lose one mark.
    1. DCT: Let $\left(f_n\right)$ be a sequence of integrable functions such that:
      1. $\left(f_n(x)\right)$ converges a.e. to a limit $f(x)$, and
      2. there is an integrable function $g$ such that, for each $n,\left|f_n(x)\right| ⩽ g(x)$ a.e.
      Then $f$ is integrable, and $∫ f=\lim _{n → āˆž} ∫ f_n$.
      Fubini: Let $f: ā„^2 → ā„$ be integrable. Then, for almost all $y$, the function $x ↦ f(x, y)$ is integrable. Moreover, if $F(y)$ is defined (for almost all $y$ ) by $F(y)=∫ f(x, y) d x$, then $F$ is integrable, and $$ ∫_{ā„^2} f(x, y) d(x, y)=∫_ā„\left(∫_ā„ f(x, y) d x\right) d y $$
    2. Note that $f$ is continuous, so $f(ā‹…, y)$ is continuous, hence measurable. Moreover $$ 0 ⩽ f(x, y) ⩽ \frac1{x^2+y} ⩽ \min \left(x^{-2}, y^{-1}\right) $$ Fix $y>0$. The constant $y^{-1}$ is integrable w.r.t. $x$ over $(0,1)$, and $x^{-2}$ is integrable over $(1, āˆž)($ by Baby MCT). By comparison, the function $x ↦ f(x, y)$ is integrable over $(0,1)$ and $(1, āˆž)$, hence over $(0, āˆž)$. For $y=0, f(x, 0)=0$ which is integrable.
      1. Fix $y ∈[0, āˆž)$. The inequality $|\sin t| ⩽|t|$ gives $$ 0 ⩽ f(x, y) ⩽ \frac{x y}{x^2+y} ⩽ x $$ Let $\left(y_n\right)$ be a sequence in $(0, āˆž)$ converging to $y$, and let $g_n(x)=f\left(x, y_n\right)$. Then $g_n(x) → f(x, y)$ by continuity of $f$. From (1) and (2) we obtain $0 ⩽ g_n(x) ⩽ \min \left(x^{-2}, x\right)$ which is integrable. By DCT $$ F\left(y_n\right)=∫_0^āˆž g_n(x) \mathrm{d} x → ∫_0^āˆž f(x, y) \mathrm{d} x=F(y) $$ It follows (from Prelims real analysis) that $F$ is continuous at $y$. So $F$ is continuous on $[0, āˆž)$.
      2. Let $x>0$. By putting $t=x y$ and then $u=\sqrt{t}$, $$ \begin{array}{r} ∫_0^āˆž f(x, y) \mathrm{d} y=∫_0^āˆž \frac{(\sin \sqrt{t})^2}{x^2+(t / x)} \frac{\mathrm{d} t}{x}=∫_0^āˆž \frac{(\sin u)^2}{x^{3}+u^2} 2 u \mathrm{~d} u ⩾ \sum_{n=1}^āˆž ∫_{\left(n+\frac1{4}\right) Ļ€}^{\left(n+\frac{3}{4}\right) Ļ€} \frac{2 u(\sin u)^2}{x^2+u^2} \mathrm{~d} u \\ ⩾ \sum_{n=1}^āˆž ∫_{\left(n+\frac1{4}\right) Ļ€}^{\left(n+\frac{3}{4}\right) Ļ€} \frac{n Ļ€}{x^{3}+(n+1)^2 Ļ€^2} \mathrm{~d} u=\sum_{n=1}^āˆž \frac{n Ļ€}{2\left(x^{3}+(n+1)^2 Ļ€^2\right)}=āˆž \end{array} $$ By the contrapositive of Tonelli/Fubini, $F$ is not integrable over $(0, āˆž)$.
      3. Clearly $F(0)=0$. For $y>0$, using the substitution $t=y x$ with $y$ fixed, then letting $y → 0+$ using MCT, and then using Jordan's inequality, $$ \frac{F(y)-F(0)}{y}=∫_0^āˆž \frac1{y} \frac{(\sin \sqrt{t})^2}{(t / y)^2+y} \frac{\mathrm{d} t}{y}=∫_0^āˆž \frac{(\sin \sqrt{t})^2}{t^2+y^{3}} \mathrm{~d} t → ∫_0^āˆž \frac{(\sin \sqrt{t})^2}{t^2} \mathrm{~d} t ⩾ ∫_0^1 \frac{4}{Ļ€^2 t} \mathrm{~d} t=āˆž $$ So the right-hand derivative does not exist.
    1. For any real number $y,|y| ⩽ 1+|y|^2$. Hence if $f ∈ ā„’^2(0,1),|f| ⩽ 1+|f|^2$ and $f$ is measurable. Since $1,|f| ∈ ā„’^2(0,1)$, it follows by comparison that $|f|$ is integrable, and hence $f$ is integrable.
      1. Let $f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}x^{-1} & (x>1) \\ 0 & (x<1)\end{array}\right.$. Then $f ∈ ā„’^2(ā„), f āˆ‰ ā„’^1(ā„)$.
      2. Let $g(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}x^{-1 / 2} & (0<x<1) \\ 0 & \text { otherwise }\end{array}\right.$. Then $g ∈ ā„’^1(ā„), g āˆ‰ ā„’^2(ā„)$.
    2. Minkowski: For measurable functions $f$ and $g$, $$ \left(∫|f+g|^p\right)^{1 / p} ⩽\left(∫|f|^p\right)^{1 / p}+\left(∫|f|^p\right)^{1 / p} $$ Define $\|f\|_{ā„’^p(I)}=\left(∫_{I}|f|^p\right)^{1 / p}$. Minkowski says that $\|ā‹…\|_{ā„’^p(I)}$ satisfies the triangle inequality. It is trivial that $\|Ī» f\|_{ā„’^p(I)}=|Ī»|\|f\|_{ā„’^p(I)}$. However it is not a norm. Let $š’©$ be the set of all measurable functions $f$ such that $f=0$ a.e. This is a subspace of $ā„’^p(I)$. Let $L^p(I)=ā„’^p(I) / š’©$ as a quotient vector space. There is a well-defined norm on $L^p(I)$ given by $\|[f]\|_{L^p(I)}=\|f\|_{ā„’^p(I)}$, where $[f]=f+š’©$. Define $⟨f, g⟩=∫ f g$ for $f, g ∈ ā„’^2(I)$. This integral exists because $|f g| ⩽ \frac12\left(|f|^2+|g|^2\right)$. Moreover $⟨f, f⟩=\|f\|_2^2$
      1. By Fubini [for non-negative functions, or via Tonelli] $$ \|k\|_{L^2\left(ā„^2\right)}^2=∫_{ā„^2}\left|k_{x}(y)\right|^2 \mathrm{~d}(x, y)=∫_ā„ ∫_ā„\left|k_{x}(y)\right|^2 \mathrm{~d} y \mathrm{~d} x=∫_ā„\left\|k_{x}\right\|_{L^2(ā„)}^2 \mathrm{~d} x. $$
      2. From (i) it follows that for almost all $x, k_{x} ∈ L^2(ā„)$. Then $g(x)=\left\langle f, k_{x}\right\rangle_{L^2(ā„)}$ is defined. By Cauchy-Schwarz, $|g(x)| ⩽\|f\|_{L^2(ā„)}\left\|k_{x}\right\|_{L^2(ā„)}$.
      3. Let $T f$ be the function $g$ extended by 0 if $g(x)$ is not defined. It follows from (i) that $x ↦\left\|k_{x}\right\|_{L^2(ā„)}^2$ is integrable. Using (ii) and comparison, $|g|^2$ is integrable, so $T f ∈ ā„’^2(ā„)$ and $$ ∫_ā„|(T f)(x)|^2 \mathrm{~d} x ⩽\|f\|_{L^2(ā„)}^2 ∫_ā„\left\|k_{x}\right\|_{L^2(ā„)}^2 \mathrm{~d} x=\|f\|_{L^2(ā„)}^2\|k\|_{L^2\left(ā„^2\right)}^2, $$ by (i)
      4. By Fubini and symmetry of $k$, $$ \left\langle T f_1, f_2\right\rangle_{L^2(ā„)}=∫_ā„ ∫_ā„ k(x, y) f_1(y) f_2(x) \mathrm{d} y \mathrm{~d} x=∫_ā„ ∫_ā„ k(y, x) f_1(y) f_2(x) \mathrm{d} x \mathrm{~d} y=\left\langle f_1, T f_2\right\rangle_{L^2(ā„)} . $$ The application of Fubini is justified by Tonelli, since the repeated integrals with $k, f_1, f_2$ replaced by $|k|,\left|f_1\right|,\left|f_2\right|$ are finite.